October 18th
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements in relation to Quality Control Orders((QCOs):
1.One of the objectives of notifying the QCOs is prevention of unfair trade practices for the protection of human, animal or plant health and safety of the environment.
2.With the implementation of the QCOs, manufacturing, storing and sale of non-BIS certified products will be prohibited as per the BIS Act, 2016.
3.QCOs are issued in accordance with the WTO Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>The objective of notifying the QCOs is to enhance quality of the domestically manufactured products, curb the imports of sub-standard products into India, prevention of unfair trade practices for the protection of human, animal or plant health and safety of the environment. Statement 2 is correct—>With the implementation of the QCOs, manufacturing, storing and sale of non-BIS certified products will be prohibited as per the BIS Act, 2016. The violation of the provision of the BIS Act can attract a penalty of imprisonment upto two years or with fine of at least Rs 2 lakh for the first offence. In case of second and subsequent offences, the fine will increase to Rs 5 lakh minimum and extend up to ten times the value of goods or articles.
Statement 3 is correct—>QCOs are issued in accordance with the WTO Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade. Quality Control Orders(QCOs) - QCOs are regulatory measures introduced by the government to establish quality standards for specific products or product categories. These orders are designed to ensure that products meet certain prescribed quality, safety, and performance requirements before they can be manufactured, imported, stored, or sold in the country.
- The main objective of QCOs is to control the import of sub-standard and cheaper items into the domestic market and ensure that customers have access to quality products that meet the necessary standards.
- QCOs cannot be challenged at the World Trade Organization (WTO) if they are imposed on the grounds of health, safety, environment and deceptive trade practices, or national security.
- To ensure compliance with the quality standards set forth in the QCOs, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) plays a crucial role.
- BIS is responsible for certifying products that meet the prescribed standards, both for domestic and international manufacturers.
- With the QCOs, manufacturing, storing and sale of non-BIS certified products are prohibited as per the BIS Act, 2016.”
- Under the order, an item cannot be produced, sold, traded, imported, or stocked unless it bears the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) mark
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>The objective of notifying the QCOs is to enhance quality of the domestically manufactured products, curb the imports of sub-standard products into India, prevention of unfair trade practices for the protection of human, animal or plant health and safety of the environment. Statement 2 is correct—>With the implementation of the QCOs, manufacturing, storing and sale of non-BIS certified products will be prohibited as per the BIS Act, 2016. The violation of the provision of the BIS Act can attract a penalty of imprisonment upto two years or with fine of at least Rs 2 lakh for the first offence. In case of second and subsequent offences, the fine will increase to Rs 5 lakh minimum and extend up to ten times the value of goods or articles.
Statement 3 is correct—>QCOs are issued in accordance with the WTO Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade. Quality Control Orders(QCOs) - QCOs are regulatory measures introduced by the government to establish quality standards for specific products or product categories. These orders are designed to ensure that products meet certain prescribed quality, safety, and performance requirements before they can be manufactured, imported, stored, or sold in the country.
- The main objective of QCOs is to control the import of sub-standard and cheaper items into the domestic market and ensure that customers have access to quality products that meet the necessary standards.
- QCOs cannot be challenged at the World Trade Organization (WTO) if they are imposed on the grounds of health, safety, environment and deceptive trade practices, or national security.
- To ensure compliance with the quality standards set forth in the QCOs, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) plays a crucial role.
- BIS is responsible for certifying products that meet the prescribed standards, both for domestic and international manufacturers.
- With the QCOs, manufacturing, storing and sale of non-BIS certified products are prohibited as per the BIS Act, 2016.”
- Under the order, an item cannot be produced, sold, traded, imported, or stocked unless it bears the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) mark
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Consider the following statements in relation to Hoolock Gibbon:
1.It is the only ape found in India.
2.Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam has the largest concentration of the hoolock gibbon.
3.Hoolocks are famous for their emotive call which is used by individuals to attract mates.
4.Hoolocks form monogamous pairs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—> Hoolock Gibbon is the only ape found in India. Statement 2 is correct—>Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam has the largest concentration of the hoolock gibbon. Statement 3 is correct—>Hoolocks are famous for their emotive call that echoes across long distances in the forest and is used by individuals to attract mates. Statement 4 is correct—>They form monogamous pairs that remain together for years, though mating outside the pair has been noticed in some individuals. Hoolock Gibbon
- The Hoolock Gibbons (Western hoolock and Eastern Hoolock), also known as Hoolocks or White Browed Gibbons, are two primate species from the family of the gibbons (Hylobatidae).
- The Hoolock gibbon, unique to India’s northeast, is one of 20 species of gibbons on Earth.
- They have high intelligence, distinct personalities, and strong family bonds similar to other apes.
- Hoolocks are the second largest of the gibbons, after the Siamang.
- With long and slender arms, hoolock gibbons are swift creatures, barely needing to step on the ground. They swing from tree to tree in a mode of locomotion known as Brachiation, and can brachiate at speeds upto 55 km/hr, covering upto six meters in just one swing.
- Their diet consists mainly of fruits, but they sometimes also consume leaves, shoots and flowers.
- Males and females are of similar size, but can be differentiated easily by the coloration of their dense hair.
- Males are black with a distinctive white brow, while females are copper-tan with dark brown hair on the sides of their face, and a clear central parting in the head hair.
- They form monogamous pairs that remain together for years, though mating outside the pair has been noticed in some individuals.
- Hoolocks are famous for their emotive call that echoes across long distances in the forest, and is used by individuals to attract mates.
- Females give birth to one offspring every 2-3 years, and it remains within the family group for 7-10 years.
- Like the other gibbons, they are diurnal and arboreal.
- Hoolock Gibbons, known as the smallest and fastest of all apes, inhabit tropical and subtropical forests in Southeast Asia.
- Gibbon Species in India:It is categorised into Western Hoolock Gibbon and Eastern Hoolock Gibbon.
- In India, both species are listed on Schedule 1 of the Indian (Wildlife) Protection Act 1972.
Western Hoolock Gibbon
- It has a much wider range, as it is found in all the states of the north-east, restricted between the south of the Brahmaputra river and east of the Dibang river.
- Outside India, it is found in eastern Bangladesh and north-west Myanmar.
- It is listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red list.
Eastern Hoolock Gibbon
- It inhabits specific pockets of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in India, and southern China and north-east Myanmar.
- It is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red list.
Incorrect
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements:
1.In the last 10 years direct tax revenue has consistently increased.
2.In FY-24 Maharashtra’s contribution to direct tax revenue was the highest.
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—>In the last 10 years direct tax revenue has not increased consistently. Statement 2 is correct—>In FY-24 Maharashtra’s contribution to direct tax revenue was the highest. Additional information
- Direct tax collections registered a growth of 182% over the past decade, with net collections surging from Rs 6.95 lakh crore in FY15 to Rs 19.60 lakh crore in FY24.
- The growth is primarily attributed to rise in personal income tax collections, which increased by 294.3%, reaching Rs 10.45 lakh crore in FY24 compared to Rs 2.65 lakh crore in FY15.
- Additionally, the corporate tax collections increased 112.85%, rising from Rs 4.28 lakh crore in FY15 to Rs 9.11 lakh crore in FY24.
- The number of income tax returns filed, including revised returns increased from over 4.04 crore in the 2014-15 fiscal year to more than 8.61 crore in 2023-24.
- The direct tax-to-GDP ratio has improved from 5.55 per cent in 2014-15 to 6.64 per cent in 2023-24, indicating a stronger contribution of direct taxes to the country’s economic growth.
- The tax buoyancy, a measure of revenue mobilisation efficiency in relation to GDP growth, has also increased from 0.86 to 2.12 during this period, showcasing the effectiveness of tax collection efforts.
- The number of taxpayers has expanded from 5.70 crore in the Assessment Year (AY) 2014-15 to 10.41 crore in the 2023-24 AY, reflecting a broader tax base and increased participation in the formal economy.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—>In the last 10 years direct tax revenue has not increased consistently. Statement 2 is correct—>In FY-24 Maharashtra’s contribution to direct tax revenue was the highest. Additional information
- Direct tax collections registered a growth of 182% over the past decade, with net collections surging from Rs 6.95 lakh crore in FY15 to Rs 19.60 lakh crore in FY24.
- The growth is primarily attributed to rise in personal income tax collections, which increased by 294.3%, reaching Rs 10.45 lakh crore in FY24 compared to Rs 2.65 lakh crore in FY15.
- Additionally, the corporate tax collections increased 112.85%, rising from Rs 4.28 lakh crore in FY15 to Rs 9.11 lakh crore in FY24.
- The number of income tax returns filed, including revised returns increased from over 4.04 crore in the 2014-15 fiscal year to more than 8.61 crore in 2023-24.
- The direct tax-to-GDP ratio has improved from 5.55 per cent in 2014-15 to 6.64 per cent in 2023-24, indicating a stronger contribution of direct taxes to the country’s economic growth.
- The tax buoyancy, a measure of revenue mobilisation efficiency in relation to GDP growth, has also increased from 0.86 to 2.12 during this period, showcasing the effectiveness of tax collection efforts.
- The number of taxpayers has expanded from 5.70 crore in the Assessment Year (AY) 2014-15 to 10.41 crore in the 2023-24 AY, reflecting a broader tax base and increased participation in the formal economy.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
<span styleven above are correct?=”font-weight: 400″>How many of the statements gi
Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—> Precision therapy involves identifying specific genetic mutations in tumours, allowing doctors to choose targeted treatments that may be more effective than standard therapies. Statement 2 is correct—> Precision therapy is an important tool for identifying patients who require extensive therapies such as surgery or chemoradiation vs those who can be treated with less invasive approaches such as radiation alone. Statement 3 is incorrect—> Although precision medicine is advancing rapidly, it is not universally applicable to all cancers or accessible to everyone. Additional Information
- The fundamental idea of precision medicine is to personalise treatment to the individual, ensuring that the appropriate patients receive the proper care. This helps to minimise overtreatment, which causes needless side effects, and undertreatment, which puts the patient at risk of cancer development.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—> Precision therapy involves identifying specific genetic mutations in tumours, allowing doctors to choose targeted treatments that may be more effective than standard therapies. Statement 2 is correct—> Precision therapy is an important tool for identifying patients who require extensive therapies such as surgery or chemoradiation vs those who can be treated with less invasive approaches such as radiation alone. Statement 3 is incorrect—> Although precision medicine is advancing rapidly, it is not universally applicable to all cancers or accessible to everyone. Additional Information
- The fundamental idea of precision medicine is to personalise treatment to the individual, ensuring that the appropriate patients receive the proper care. This helps to minimise overtreatment, which causes needless side effects, and undertreatment, which puts the patient at risk of cancer development.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Consider the following statements in relation to Citizenship in India,:
1. Article 11 of the Constitution gives Parliament the power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.
2. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, all persons of Indian origin who entered the state before January 1, 1966 and have been ordinarily resident in Assam ever since shall be deemed to be citizens of India.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>Article 11 of the Constitution gives Parliament the power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship. Statement 2 is correct—>Clause 5 of the Assam Accord states that January 1, 1966 shall serve as the base cut-off date for the detection and deletion of “foreigners”, but it also contains provisions for the regularisation of those who arrived in the state after that date and upto March 24, 1971. Section 6A was inserted into the Citizenship Act to facilitate this. It says that all persons of “Indian origin” who entered the state before January 1, 1966 and have been “ordinarily resident” in Assam ever since “shall be deemed to be citizens of India”.
Assam Accord
- The Assam Accord, a Memorandum of Settlement (MoS), signed on August 15, 1985, by the Union government, the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU) and the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad ended the six-year bloody agitation (1979-1985) to detect, disenfranchise and deport “illegal” residents from the State.
- At the core of the Assam Accord was the “Foreigners Issue” in Clause 5 of the MoS.
- It states that all persons who came to Assam prior to 1.1.1966 shall be regularised.
- Those who came between 1.1.1966 and March 24, 1971, shall be detected in accordance with the relevant laws and removed from the electoral rolls for 10 years.
- On the expiry of 10 years, the names of all such persons shall be restored in the electoral rolls.
- The subsection 8 of Clause 5 states: “Foreigners who came to Assam on or after March 25, 1971 shall continue to be detected, deleted and expelled in accordance with law.
- Clause 6 of the Assam Accord: It promises Constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards, to preserve and promote the cultural, social, linguistic identity and heritage of the Assamese people.
- The main aim was to protect the indigenous identity of the Assamese people.
Section 6A of the Citizenship Act 1955:
- Background:
-
- Section 6A was introduced following the Assam Accord of 1985, which aimed to address concerns regarding migrants from Bangladesh.
-
- Provisions of Section 6A:
-
- Under this section, individuals of Indian origin who entered Assam before January 1, 1966, are deemed citizens.
- Those who entered after this date but before March 24, 1971, can register as citizens, though they are excluded from electoral rolls for ten years.
- Anyone entering after March 24, 1971, is classified as an illegal immigrant.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>Article 11 of the Constitution gives Parliament the power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship. Statement 2 is correct—>Clause 5 of the Assam Accord states that January 1, 1966 shall serve as the base cut-off date for the detection and deletion of “foreigners”, but it also contains provisions for the regularisation of those who arrived in the state after that date and upto March 24, 1971. Section 6A was inserted into the Citizenship Act to facilitate this. It says that all persons of “Indian origin” who entered the state before January 1, 1966 and have been “ordinarily resident” in Assam ever since “shall be deemed to be citizens of India”.
Assam Accord
- The Assam Accord, a Memorandum of Settlement (MoS), signed on August 15, 1985, by the Union government, the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU) and the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad ended the six-year bloody agitation (1979-1985) to detect, disenfranchise and deport “illegal” residents from the State.
- At the core of the Assam Accord was the “Foreigners Issue” in Clause 5 of the MoS.
- It states that all persons who came to Assam prior to 1.1.1966 shall be regularised.
- Those who came between 1.1.1966 and March 24, 1971, shall be detected in accordance with the relevant laws and removed from the electoral rolls for 10 years.
- On the expiry of 10 years, the names of all such persons shall be restored in the electoral rolls.
- The subsection 8 of Clause 5 states: “Foreigners who came to Assam on or after March 25, 1971 shall continue to be detected, deleted and expelled in accordance with law.
- Clause 6 of the Assam Accord: It promises Constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards, to preserve and promote the cultural, social, linguistic identity and heritage of the Assamese people.
- The main aim was to protect the indigenous identity of the Assamese people.
Section 6A of the Citizenship Act 1955:
- Background:
-
- Section 6A was introduced following the Assam Accord of 1985, which aimed to address concerns regarding migrants from Bangladesh.
-
- Provisions of Section 6A:
-
- Under this section, individuals of Indian origin who entered Assam before January 1, 1966, are deemed citizens.
- Those who entered after this date but before March 24, 1971, can register as citizens, though they are excluded from electoral rolls for ten years.
- Anyone entering after March 24, 1971, is classified as an illegal immigrant.