Ocotber 19th
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following information:
Tiger Reserve State River flowing through it Ramgarh Vishdhari Rajasthan Chambal Corbett Uttarakhand Ramganga Veerangana Durgavati Karnataka Godavari In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Correct
Solution
Tiger Reserve State River flowing through it Ramgarh Vishdhari Rajasthan Mez river(Tributary of the Chambal river) Corbett Uttarakhand Ramganga Veerangana Durgavati Madhya Pradesh It straddles parts of the Narmada and Yamuna River basins. - Hence, information given only in row 2 is correctly matched.
Additional Information
- India currently harbors almost 75% of the world’s wild tiger population.
- The current tiger population in India is estimated at 3,682 (ranging between a minimum of 3,167 to a maximum of 3,925 tigers).
- The largest tiger population of 785 is in Madhya Pradesh, followed by Karnataka (563) & Uttarakhand (560), and Maharashtra (444).
- The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve is highest in Corbett (260), followed by Bandipur (150), Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh (135), Dudhwa (135), Mudumalai(114), Kanha (105), Kaziranga (104), Sundarbans (100), Tadoba (97), Sathyamangalam (85), and Pench-MP (77).
- There are 5 tiger reserves in Rajasthan:Dholpur-Karauli Tiger, Mukundra Hills, Ramgarh Vishdhari, Ranthambore, and Sariska.
- Madhya Pradesh is home to 7 tiger reserves – Kanha, Bandhavgarh, Satpura, Pench, Veerangana Durgavati, Panna and Sanjay-Dubri.
- There are two tiger reserve in Uttarakhand:Rajaji Tiger Reserve and Corbett Tiger Reserve
Incorrect
Solution
Tiger Reserve State River flowing through it Ramgarh Vishdhari Rajasthan Mez river(Tributary of the Chambal river) Corbett Uttarakhand Ramganga Veerangana Durgavati Madhya Pradesh It straddles parts of the Narmada and Yamuna River basins. - Hence, information given only in row 2 is correctly matched.
Additional Information
- India currently harbors almost 75% of the world’s wild tiger population.
- The current tiger population in India is estimated at 3,682 (ranging between a minimum of 3,167 to a maximum of 3,925 tigers).
- The largest tiger population of 785 is in Madhya Pradesh, followed by Karnataka (563) & Uttarakhand (560), and Maharashtra (444).
- The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve is highest in Corbett (260), followed by Bandipur (150), Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh (135), Dudhwa (135), Mudumalai(114), Kanha (105), Kaziranga (104), Sundarbans (100), Tadoba (97), Sathyamangalam (85), and Pench-MP (77).
- There are 5 tiger reserves in Rajasthan:Dholpur-Karauli Tiger, Mukundra Hills, Ramgarh Vishdhari, Ranthambore, and Sariska.
- Madhya Pradesh is home to 7 tiger reserves – Kanha, Bandhavgarh, Satpura, Pench, Veerangana Durgavati, Panna and Sanjay-Dubri.
- There are two tiger reserve in Uttarakhand:Rajaji Tiger Reserve and Corbett Tiger Reserve
-
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Consider the following statements in relation to DNA profiling:
1.It can be used to identify Monozygotic twins.
2.The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023 does not allow DNA profiling as it is violative of Article 20 of the Constitution.
3.It can determine the origin of species.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—> Individuals as close as siblings (exception: monozygotic twins) can be identified using DNA profiling. Statement 2 is incorrect—> The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), retains the provision for mandatory DNA profiling of rape case suspects, introduced in the CrPC in 2006. In addition, Section 176(3) of the BNSS mandates the collection of forensic evidence collection from crime scenes in offences punishable by seven years or more. Statement 3 is correct—> The origin of species can be identified using DNA profiling. Additional Information
- DNA profiling or DNA typing has shown to be the most effective approach for determining the origin of biological specimens.
- It has been extremely useful in solving murders, sexual assaults, and a variety of other horrible crimes.
- There are various advantages of DNA profiling, including:
- The potential for discrimination is great. Individuals as close as siblings (exception: monozygotic twins) can be identified
- In contrast to dermal fingerprinting, DNA profiling can be performed on any biological material and is not limited to any single organ or location of the body.
- Because of its high sensitivity, DNA profiling can be performed on degraded or small amounts of biological material.
- The origin of species and gender can be identified.
- It is possible to identify wildlife and endangered species, as well as biological warfare agents.
- Another new law, the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act 2022—which replaced the colonial-era Identification of Prisoners Act 1920— allows the extraction and analysis of biological samples from convicts, preventive detainees, as well as those arrested for charges punishable by 7 years or more, or any offence against a woman or a child.
- According to Section 2(b) of the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act 2022 the term ‘measurement’ includes biological samples and their analysis, which also implies preparing DNA profiles.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—> Individuals as close as siblings (exception: monozygotic twins) can be identified using DNA profiling. Statement 2 is incorrect—> The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), retains the provision for mandatory DNA profiling of rape case suspects, introduced in the CrPC in 2006. In addition, Section 176(3) of the BNSS mandates the collection of forensic evidence collection from crime scenes in offences punishable by seven years or more. Statement 3 is correct—> The origin of species can be identified using DNA profiling. Additional Information
- DNA profiling or DNA typing has shown to be the most effective approach for determining the origin of biological specimens.
- It has been extremely useful in solving murders, sexual assaults, and a variety of other horrible crimes.
- There are various advantages of DNA profiling, including:
- The potential for discrimination is great. Individuals as close as siblings (exception: monozygotic twins) can be identified
- In contrast to dermal fingerprinting, DNA profiling can be performed on any biological material and is not limited to any single organ or location of the body.
- Because of its high sensitivity, DNA profiling can be performed on degraded or small amounts of biological material.
- The origin of species and gender can be identified.
- It is possible to identify wildlife and endangered species, as well as biological warfare agents.
- Another new law, the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act 2022—which replaced the colonial-era Identification of Prisoners Act 1920— allows the extraction and analysis of biological samples from convicts, preventive detainees, as well as those arrested for charges punishable by 7 years or more, or any offence against a woman or a child.
- According to Section 2(b) of the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act 2022 the term ‘measurement’ includes biological samples and their analysis, which also implies preparing DNA profiles.
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements in relation to Non-kinetic warfare:
1.It involves only cyber warfare
2.It does not involve non-military stakeholders.
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—>Non-kinetic warfare generally refers to action against an adversary without a direct conventional military action. It comprises possibilities such as information warfare, cyber warfare, psychological operations, electromagnetic offensives and cryptographic warfare. Statement 2 is incorrect—>It can involve non-military stakeholders too. Additional information
- Kinetic Warfare: Kinetic warfare typically means military means employing a range of weapons.
- While kinetic options are to physically shoot and destroy the drones, non-kinetic options are jamming them or taking control of their operation.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—>Non-kinetic warfare generally refers to action against an adversary without a direct conventional military action. It comprises possibilities such as information warfare, cyber warfare, psychological operations, electromagnetic offensives and cryptographic warfare. Statement 2 is incorrect—>It can involve non-military stakeholders too. Additional information
- Kinetic Warfare: Kinetic warfare typically means military means employing a range of weapons.
- While kinetic options are to physically shoot and destroy the drones, non-kinetic options are jamming them or taking control of their operation.
-
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements:
1.The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA), 2006 bans child betrothals.
2.India is yet to ratify the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women which stipulates against betrothals of minors.
3.Under PCMA, which considers child marriage a criminal offence, girls and boys below the age of 18 are deemed to be children.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—> The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA), 2006 does not ban child betrothals.The Supreme Court has suggested to the Parliament to consider outlawing child betrothals by amending the Prevention of Child Marriage Act(PCMA),2006/ Statement 2 is incorrect—> India ratified Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) on 9th July, 1993 which stipulates against betrothals of minors. Statement 3 is incorrect—> PCMA defines a child as a male under 21 years of age and a female under 18 years of age. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA), 2006
- This Act replaced the Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 which was enacted during the British era.
- The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act presently allows for child marriages, between a boy of under 21 years and a girl under 18 years of age.
- It forbids child marriages, and protects and provides assistance to the victims of child marriages.
- Voidable marriage: (Section 3 ) Every child marriage is voidable at the option of the contracting party who was child at the time of solemnization of marriage. A Decree of nullity can be obtained by such person by filing petition before the District court for annulment of marriage within 2 years after attaining majority.
- There is provision for maintenance of girl child.
- Child begotten or conceived of child marriage shall be deemed to be legitimate children not withstanding such marriage is annulled by the court.
- It authorises the State Government to appoint for the whole State, or such part there of as may be specified, an officer or officers to be known as the ‘Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPO)’ having jurisdiction over the area or areas specified in the notification
- Duties of the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer—
- to prevent solemnisation of child marriages by taking such action as he may deem fit;
- to collect evidence for the effective prosecution of persons contravening the provisions of this Act;
- to advise either individual cases or counsel the residents of the locality generally not to indulge in promoting, helping, aiding or allowing the solemnisation of child marriages;
- to create awareness of the evil which results from child marriages;
- to sensitize the community on the issue of child marriages;
- to furnish such periodical returns and statistics as the State Government may direct; and
- to discharge such other functions and duties as may be assigned to him by the State Government.
- Duties of the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer—
Status of Child Marriage in India - According to NFHS-5, 23.3% of women surveyed got married before attaining the legal age of 18 years, down from 26.8% reported in NFHS-4.
- The figure for underage marriage among men is 17.7% (NFHS-5) and 20.3% (NFHS-4)
- Highest Rate of Underage Marriages:
- West Bengal, along with Bihar, remains one of the states with the highest rate of underage marriages.
- Lowest Rate of Underage Marriages:
- J&K, Lakshadweep, Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Goa, Nagaland, Kerala, Puducherry and Tamil Nadu.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—> The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA), 2006 does not ban child betrothals.The Supreme Court has suggested to the Parliament to consider outlawing child betrothals by amending the Prevention of Child Marriage Act(PCMA),2006/ Statement 2 is incorrect—> India ratified Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) on 9th July, 1993 which stipulates against betrothals of minors. Statement 3 is incorrect—> PCMA defines a child as a male under 21 years of age and a female under 18 years of age. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA), 2006
- This Act replaced the Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 which was enacted during the British era.
- The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act presently allows for child marriages, between a boy of under 21 years and a girl under 18 years of age.
- It forbids child marriages, and protects and provides assistance to the victims of child marriages.
- Voidable marriage: (Section 3 ) Every child marriage is voidable at the option of the contracting party who was child at the time of solemnization of marriage. A Decree of nullity can be obtained by such person by filing petition before the District court for annulment of marriage within 2 years after attaining majority.
- There is provision for maintenance of girl child.
- Child begotten or conceived of child marriage shall be deemed to be legitimate children not withstanding such marriage is annulled by the court.
- It authorises the State Government to appoint for the whole State, or such part there of as may be specified, an officer or officers to be known as the ‘Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPO)’ having jurisdiction over the area or areas specified in the notification
- Duties of the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer—
- to prevent solemnisation of child marriages by taking such action as he may deem fit;
- to collect evidence for the effective prosecution of persons contravening the provisions of this Act;
- to advise either individual cases or counsel the residents of the locality generally not to indulge in promoting, helping, aiding or allowing the solemnisation of child marriages;
- to create awareness of the evil which results from child marriages;
- to sensitize the community on the issue of child marriages;
- to furnish such periodical returns and statistics as the State Government may direct; and
- to discharge such other functions and duties as may be assigned to him by the State Government.
- Duties of the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer—
Status of Child Marriage in India - According to NFHS-5, 23.3% of women surveyed got married before attaining the legal age of 18 years, down from 26.8% reported in NFHS-4.
- The figure for underage marriage among men is 17.7% (NFHS-5) and 20.3% (NFHS-4)
- Highest Rate of Underage Marriages:
- West Bengal, along with Bihar, remains one of the states with the highest rate of underage marriages.
- Lowest Rate of Underage Marriages:
- J&K, Lakshadweep, Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Goa, Nagaland, Kerala, Puducherry and Tamil Nadu.
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
With reference to Satellite spectrum, consider the following statements:
1.Satellite spectrum has no national territorial limits.
2.An administrative allocation of spectrum will allow multiple operators to use a particular band of spectrum.
3.As per The Telecommunications Act 2023, the government can assign satellite spectrum only through auction route.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—> Satellite spectrum has “no national territorial limits” and is overseen by the International Telecommunications Union. Statement 2 is correct—>Unlike in auctions, an administrative allocation of spectrum will allow multiple operators to use a particular band of spectrum. This happens since the linear nature of satellite bands at particular locations on earth can be serviced by a satellite in orbit only when it is directly positioned above it. As it moves past the point, another satellite belonging to a different operator may pick up the band. Statement 3 is incorrect—> As per The Telecommunications Act 2023 the government can assign spectrum by administrative process for entries listed in the First Schedule. This list of 19 items also includes satellite-based services. Auction versus Administrative Allocation
- In the telecommunications space, auction is a process where operators bid for the spectrum after a reserve price is set by the government.
- In the administrative or non-auction route, the government allocates the spectrum at a certain price based on certain terms and conditions. For telecom services, auction is the only way to ensure transparency and fair price discovery.
- However, the Telecom Act has talked about administrative allocation of spectrum for areas of strategic interest, government usage, and where it is not feasible to auction the spectrum because of the nature of services.
- Satellite communication services fall in the third category where globally it has not been feasible to auction the spectrum.
- This is because satellite spectrum is a shared resource and can be collaboratively used by various entities under regulated conditions. The same frequencies can be reused by multiple satellite networks in the same geographic areas.
- Unlike terrestrial spectrum, which can be divided into exclusive blocks, satellite spectrum cannot be segmented. Thus auction of satellite spectrum is technically challenging and not feasible
The International Telecommunication Union
- ITU is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies (ICTs).
- The Organization is made up of a membership of 194 Member States and more than 1000 companies, universities and international and regional organizations.
- Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and with regional offices on every continent.
- ITU is the oldest agency in the UN family – connecting the world since the dawn of the telegraph in 1865.
Role:
- It facilitates international connectivity in communication networks
- It allocates global radio spectrum and satellite orbits, develops the technical standards that ensure networks and technologies connect seamlessly, and works to improve access to digital technologies in underserved communities worldwide.
- ITU works to bring digital connectivity to everyone, providing a trusted, multilateral platform to broker international agreements and standards, share knowledge, build capacity, and work with members and partners to spread access to technology around the world.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—> Satellite spectrum has “no national territorial limits” and is overseen by the International Telecommunications Union. Statement 2 is correct—>Unlike in auctions, an administrative allocation of spectrum will allow multiple operators to use a particular band of spectrum. This happens since the linear nature of satellite bands at particular locations on earth can be serviced by a satellite in orbit only when it is directly positioned above it. As it moves past the point, another satellite belonging to a different operator may pick up the band. Statement 3 is incorrect—> As per The Telecommunications Act 2023 the government can assign spectrum by administrative process for entries listed in the First Schedule. This list of 19 items also includes satellite-based services. Auction versus Administrative Allocation
- In the telecommunications space, auction is a process where operators bid for the spectrum after a reserve price is set by the government.
- In the administrative or non-auction route, the government allocates the spectrum at a certain price based on certain terms and conditions. For telecom services, auction is the only way to ensure transparency and fair price discovery.
- However, the Telecom Act has talked about administrative allocation of spectrum for areas of strategic interest, government usage, and where it is not feasible to auction the spectrum because of the nature of services.
- Satellite communication services fall in the third category where globally it has not been feasible to auction the spectrum.
- This is because satellite spectrum is a shared resource and can be collaboratively used by various entities under regulated conditions. The same frequencies can be reused by multiple satellite networks in the same geographic areas.
- Unlike terrestrial spectrum, which can be divided into exclusive blocks, satellite spectrum cannot be segmented. Thus auction of satellite spectrum is technically challenging and not feasible
The International Telecommunication Union
- ITU is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies (ICTs).
- The Organization is made up of a membership of 194 Member States and more than 1000 companies, universities and international and regional organizations.
- Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and with regional offices on every continent.
- ITU is the oldest agency in the UN family – connecting the world since the dawn of the telegraph in 1865.
Role:
- It facilitates international connectivity in communication networks
- It allocates global radio spectrum and satellite orbits, develops the technical standards that ensure networks and technologies connect seamlessly, and works to improve access to digital technologies in underserved communities worldwide.
- ITU works to bring digital connectivity to everyone, providing a trusted, multilateral platform to broker international agreements and standards, share knowledge, build capacity, and work with members and partners to spread access to technology around the world.