October 26th
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements in relation to Biodiversity Intactness Index:
1.It has been developed by the World Wide Fund for Nature .
2.It summarises the change in ecological communities in response to human pressures.
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—> The PREDICTS team in Natural History Museum’s(NHM’s) Biodiversity Futures Lab has developed the Biodiversity Intactness Index (BII). Statement 2 is correct—> It summarises the change in ecological communities in response to human pressures Additional Information
- The Biodiversity Intactness Index (BII) measures biodiversity change using abundance data on plants, fungi and animals worldwide. The Index shows how local terrestrial biodiversity responds to human pressures such as land use change and intensification.
- The Biodiversity Intactness Index (BII) summarises the change in ecological communities in response to human pressures. The BII is an estimated percentage of the original number of species that remain and their abundance in any given area, despite human impacts.
- The BII is averaged across areas (countries, regions or global) to give the remaining biodiversity across that area.
- The PREDICTS (Projecting Responses of Ecological Diversity In Changing Terrestrial Systems) project calculates the BII using data from ecological studies conducted around the world. This data includes more than 54,000 species, encompassing not only birds and mammals, the groups most often used in biodiversity indicators, but also plants, fungi and insects.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—> The PREDICTS team in Natural History Museum’s(NHM’s) Biodiversity Futures Lab has developed the Biodiversity Intactness Index (BII). Statement 2 is correct—> It summarises the change in ecological communities in response to human pressures Additional Information
- The Biodiversity Intactness Index (BII) measures biodiversity change using abundance data on plants, fungi and animals worldwide. The Index shows how local terrestrial biodiversity responds to human pressures such as land use change and intensification.
- The Biodiversity Intactness Index (BII) summarises the change in ecological communities in response to human pressures. The BII is an estimated percentage of the original number of species that remain and their abundance in any given area, despite human impacts.
- The BII is averaged across areas (countries, regions or global) to give the remaining biodiversity across that area.
- The PREDICTS (Projecting Responses of Ecological Diversity In Changing Terrestrial Systems) project calculates the BII using data from ecological studies conducted around the world. This data includes more than 54,000 species, encompassing not only birds and mammals, the groups most often used in biodiversity indicators, but also plants, fungi and insects.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Consider the following statements:
1.The Supreme Court in Common Cause vs Union of India (2018) recognised the right to die with dignity as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
2. Living will is not legally valid in India.
3.A living will is a written legal document that deals with the disposal of any property, either during one’s lifetime or after death.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>The Supreme Court in Common Cause vs Union of India (2018) recognised the right to die with dignity as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect—>Living Will was not legally viable in India until 2018 when the Supreme Court made a historic judgment that year prescribing guidelines to ensure that a person with deteriorating health should be able to execute a Living Will. Statement 3 is incorrect—>A living will is a written legal document that individuals can execute during their lifetime, whereby they can specify whether they shall or shall not be given medical treatment in the future if they become terminally ill. It does not deal with the disposal of any property, either during one’s lifetime or after death. Additional Information
- A living will comes into effect while individuals are in a vegetative state and cannot express their wishes regarding their preference of medical treatment. Effectively, a living will allows individuals to exercise their right to die with dignity in circumstances where such individual becomes incapable of taking a decision.
What are the Landmark Cases in India on Euthanasia and Living Will? - P. Rathinam v. Union of India (1994)
- The Supreme Court struck down Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code, 1869 (IPC) which criminalized attempted suicide, paving the way for discussions on the right to die with dignity.
- Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab (1996)
- The Supreme Court upheld the validity of Sections 309 and 306 of the IPC but distinguished euthanasia from suicide, leaving room for the possibility of passive euthanasia.
- Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011)
- The Supreme Court recognized the legality of passive euthanasia in certain circumstances.
- Guidelines were provided for the withdrawal or refusal of life-sustaining treatment for patients in a persistent vegetative state or terminal illness.
- The court acknowledged the need for advance directives but did not provide specific guidelines for living wills.
- Common Cause v. Union of India (2018)
- The Supreme Court upheld the legality of passive euthanasia and laid down an elaborate procedure for the execution and implementation of living wills in India.
- The judgment recognized the principles of patient autonomy, self-determination, and human dignity as enshrined in Article 21 of the Constitution.
- Detailed guidelines were provided for the execution, revocation, and implementation of living wills, involving multiple authorities and medical boards.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>The Supreme Court in Common Cause vs Union of India (2018) recognised the right to die with dignity as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect—>Living Will was not legally viable in India until 2018 when the Supreme Court made a historic judgment that year prescribing guidelines to ensure that a person with deteriorating health should be able to execute a Living Will. Statement 3 is incorrect—>A living will is a written legal document that individuals can execute during their lifetime, whereby they can specify whether they shall or shall not be given medical treatment in the future if they become terminally ill. It does not deal with the disposal of any property, either during one’s lifetime or after death. Additional Information
- A living will comes into effect while individuals are in a vegetative state and cannot express their wishes regarding their preference of medical treatment. Effectively, a living will allows individuals to exercise their right to die with dignity in circumstances where such individual becomes incapable of taking a decision.
What are the Landmark Cases in India on Euthanasia and Living Will? - P. Rathinam v. Union of India (1994)
- The Supreme Court struck down Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code, 1869 (IPC) which criminalized attempted suicide, paving the way for discussions on the right to die with dignity.
- Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab (1996)
- The Supreme Court upheld the validity of Sections 309 and 306 of the IPC but distinguished euthanasia from suicide, leaving room for the possibility of passive euthanasia.
- Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011)
- The Supreme Court recognized the legality of passive euthanasia in certain circumstances.
- Guidelines were provided for the withdrawal or refusal of life-sustaining treatment for patients in a persistent vegetative state or terminal illness.
- The court acknowledged the need for advance directives but did not provide specific guidelines for living wills.
- Common Cause v. Union of India (2018)
- The Supreme Court upheld the legality of passive euthanasia and laid down an elaborate procedure for the execution and implementation of living wills in India.
- The judgment recognized the principles of patient autonomy, self-determination, and human dignity as enshrined in Article 21 of the Constitution.
- Detailed guidelines were provided for the execution, revocation, and implementation of living wills, involving multiple authorities and medical boards.
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements in relation to Nature Conservation Index(NCI):
1. It evaluates conservation efforts using four markers — land management, threats to biodiversity, capacity and governance, and future trends.
2.It has been developed by Conservation International.
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—> Nature Conservation Index evaluates conservation efforts using four markers — land management, threats to biodiversity, capacity and governance, and future trends. Statement 2 is incorrect—>The NCI is developed by Goldman Sonnenfeldt School of Sustainability and Climate Change at Ben-Gurion University of the Negev and BioDB.com, a non-profit website dedicated to maintaining biodiversity data. Additional Information
- The first-ever Nature Conservation Index (NCI) was launched in October, 2024.
- The NCI is a data-driven analysis assessing each country’s progress in balancing conservation and development, aimed at helping governments, researchers, and organisations identify concerns and enhance conservation policies for long-term biodiversity protection.
- It is aimed at helping governments, researchers, and organisations identify concerns and enhance conservation policies for long-term biodiversity protection
- India with an abysmal score of 45.5 (out of 100) has been ranked 176th in the Global Nature Conservation Index, 2024. The country ranks as one of the five worst performers alongside Kiribati (180), Turkey (179), Iraq (178), and Micronesia (177) in the ranking of 180 countries.
- India’s rank at the bottom is mainly attributed to inefficient land management and rising threats to its biodiversity.
- The assessment highlighted multiple threats to India’s biodiversity, including habitat loss and fragmentation caused by agriculture, urbanisation and infrastructural development, with climate change posing an additional risk.
- The top-ranking countries were Luxembourg, Estonia, and Denmark, with others including Zimbabwe and Costa Rica finding their way into the top 10.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—> Nature Conservation Index evaluates conservation efforts using four markers — land management, threats to biodiversity, capacity and governance, and future trends. Statement 2 is incorrect—>The NCI is developed by Goldman Sonnenfeldt School of Sustainability and Climate Change at Ben-Gurion University of the Negev and BioDB.com, a non-profit website dedicated to maintaining biodiversity data. Additional Information
- The first-ever Nature Conservation Index (NCI) was launched in October, 2024.
- The NCI is a data-driven analysis assessing each country’s progress in balancing conservation and development, aimed at helping governments, researchers, and organisations identify concerns and enhance conservation policies for long-term biodiversity protection.
- It is aimed at helping governments, researchers, and organisations identify concerns and enhance conservation policies for long-term biodiversity protection
- India with an abysmal score of 45.5 (out of 100) has been ranked 176th in the Global Nature Conservation Index, 2024. The country ranks as one of the five worst performers alongside Kiribati (180), Turkey (179), Iraq (178), and Micronesia (177) in the ranking of 180 countries.
- India’s rank at the bottom is mainly attributed to inefficient land management and rising threats to its biodiversity.
- The assessment highlighted multiple threats to India’s biodiversity, including habitat loss and fragmentation caused by agriculture, urbanisation and infrastructural development, with climate change posing an additional risk.
- The top-ranking countries were Luxembourg, Estonia, and Denmark, with others including Zimbabwe and Costa Rica finding their way into the top 10.
-
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements in relation to Sensex:
1. It is considered the benchmark index of the Indian stock market.
2.Sensex is calculated based on the Full Market Capitalisation.
3.Sensex constitutes top 50 companies that are actively traded in Bombay Stock Exchange.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—> Sensex is considered the benchmark index of the Indian stock market. Statement 2 is incorrect—> Sensex is calculated based on the Free-float Market Capitalisation” methodology. Statement 3 is incorrect—>The Sensex comprises 30 companies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). Additional Information
- Sensex is the benchmark index of the BSE in India. It was launched on January 1, 1986 as a basket of 30 stocks representing the country’s largest, financially-sound companies listed on the BSE.
- It shows how well the 30 biggest and most traded stocks on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) are doing
- The term ‘Sensex’ is a blend of words ‘Sensitive’ and ‘Index’ and was coined by stock market expert Deepak Mohini.
- The Sensex reflects the movements in the Indian stock market. It is considered the benchmark index of the Indian stock market.
- It is the oldest index in India and provides time series data from 1979, BSE, which was previously known as Bombay Stock Exchange, says on its website.
- Sensex, which is also referred to as BSE 30, was calculated based on the market capitalisation or “Full Market Capitalisation” when it was launched but shifted to a “Free-float Market Capitalisation” methodology from September 1, 2003. This method is used by all major index providers including MSCI and FTSE.
- Free-float is that proportion of total shares issued by the company that is readily available for trading to the general public. It does not take into account promoters’ holding, government holding, and other shares that will not be available in the market for trading in the ordinary course of events.
- Free-Float Market Capitalisation = Market Capitalisation x Free Float Factor
How are the 30 companies selected?
- The BSE’s criteria for selecting these companies is as followed:
- BSE-listed stock: The stock should have a listing history of at least one year on BSE to be considered.
- Market Capitalisation: The company should be in the Top 100 companies listed by full market capitalisation.
- Trading frequency: The Security should have been traded on each and every trading day for the last one year, BSE says. Exceptions to this can be made in case of extreme reasons.
- Average Daily Trades and Average Daily Turnover: The Security should be in the Top 150 firms listed by average number of trades per day and by average value of shares traded per day for the last one year.
- Track Record: In the opinion of the Index Committee, the firm should have an acceptable track record, BSE says on its website.
- The Index Committee meets every quarter to review all the BSE indices including SENSEX. However, every review meeting may or may not lead to a change in the constituents.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—> Sensex is considered the benchmark index of the Indian stock market. Statement 2 is incorrect—> Sensex is calculated based on the Free-float Market Capitalisation” methodology. Statement 3 is incorrect—>The Sensex comprises 30 companies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). Additional Information
- Sensex is the benchmark index of the BSE in India. It was launched on January 1, 1986 as a basket of 30 stocks representing the country’s largest, financially-sound companies listed on the BSE.
- It shows how well the 30 biggest and most traded stocks on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) are doing
- The term ‘Sensex’ is a blend of words ‘Sensitive’ and ‘Index’ and was coined by stock market expert Deepak Mohini.
- The Sensex reflects the movements in the Indian stock market. It is considered the benchmark index of the Indian stock market.
- It is the oldest index in India and provides time series data from 1979, BSE, which was previously known as Bombay Stock Exchange, says on its website.
- Sensex, which is also referred to as BSE 30, was calculated based on the market capitalisation or “Full Market Capitalisation” when it was launched but shifted to a “Free-float Market Capitalisation” methodology from September 1, 2003. This method is used by all major index providers including MSCI and FTSE.
- Free-float is that proportion of total shares issued by the company that is readily available for trading to the general public. It does not take into account promoters’ holding, government holding, and other shares that will not be available in the market for trading in the ordinary course of events.
- Free-Float Market Capitalisation = Market Capitalisation x Free Float Factor
How are the 30 companies selected?
- The BSE’s criteria for selecting these companies is as followed:
- BSE-listed stock: The stock should have a listing history of at least one year on BSE to be considered.
- Market Capitalisation: The company should be in the Top 100 companies listed by full market capitalisation.
- Trading frequency: The Security should have been traded on each and every trading day for the last one year, BSE says. Exceptions to this can be made in case of extreme reasons.
- Average Daily Trades and Average Daily Turnover: The Security should be in the Top 150 firms listed by average number of trades per day and by average value of shares traded per day for the last one year.
- Track Record: In the opinion of the Index Committee, the firm should have an acceptable track record, BSE says on its website.
- The Index Committee meets every quarter to review all the BSE indices including SENSEX. However, every review meeting may or may not lead to a change in the constituents.
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
With reference to the Colonial interest in Naga Hills, consider the following statements:
1. British colonial authority in the Naga Hills began after the First Anglo-Burmese War which led to the enforcement of the Treaty of Yandabo.
2. The discovery of tea plants in the lower Naga Hills led to the establishment of permanent military outposts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—> British colonial authority in the Naga Hills began after their victory over the Burmese in the First Anglo-Burmese War in 1826, leading to the enforcement of the Treaty of Yandabo. Within 15 years, the British annexed Assam, Cachar, Jaintia, and several tribal states of the Khasi Hills. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct—> By 1843, the discovery of tea bushes in the lower Naga Hills provided a significant incentive for British annexation, prompting ideas for permanent military outposts to “effect progressive reform” and strengthening colonial beliefs about the region’s lawlessness. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Additional Information
- The Naga Hills, as perceived by the British, extended westward from the Patkai ranges, bordering the Brahmaputra valley. Today, the Patkai includes mountains along the Indo-Myanmar border, encompassing Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and parts of Upper Burma. British colonial authority in the Naga Hills began after their victory over the Burmese in the First Anglo-Burmese War in 1826, leading to the enforcement of the Treaty of Yandabo. Within 15 years, the British annexed Assam, Cachar, Jaintia, and several tribal states of the Khasi Hills.
- The first encounter between the Nagas and the British occurred in January 1832, when Major Francis Jenkins and Captain R Boileau Pemberton sought a land route from Manipur to Assam.
- The Naga Hills District was created in 1866 by the Government of British India, and it became a district of Assam province.
- Christianity was first introduced to the Naga Hills by American missionary E W Clark, who arrived in the Ao Naga Hills in 1872, followed by British missionaries in 1878.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—> British colonial authority in the Naga Hills began after their victory over the Burmese in the First Anglo-Burmese War in 1826, leading to the enforcement of the Treaty of Yandabo. Within 15 years, the British annexed Assam, Cachar, Jaintia, and several tribal states of the Khasi Hills. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct—> By 1843, the discovery of tea bushes in the lower Naga Hills provided a significant incentive for British annexation, prompting ideas for permanent military outposts to “effect progressive reform” and strengthening colonial beliefs about the region’s lawlessness. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Additional Information
- The Naga Hills, as perceived by the British, extended westward from the Patkai ranges, bordering the Brahmaputra valley. Today, the Patkai includes mountains along the Indo-Myanmar border, encompassing Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and parts of Upper Burma. British colonial authority in the Naga Hills began after their victory over the Burmese in the First Anglo-Burmese War in 1826, leading to the enforcement of the Treaty of Yandabo. Within 15 years, the British annexed Assam, Cachar, Jaintia, and several tribal states of the Khasi Hills.
- The first encounter between the Nagas and the British occurred in January 1832, when Major Francis Jenkins and Captain R Boileau Pemberton sought a land route from Manipur to Assam.
- The Naga Hills District was created in 1866 by the Government of British India, and it became a district of Assam province.
- Christianity was first introduced to the Naga Hills by American missionary E W Clark, who arrived in the Ao Naga Hills in 1872, followed by British missionaries in 1878.