November 23rd
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
With reference to the role of centrifuges in uranium enrichment, consider the following statements:
1.Centrifuges are used to increase the proportion of fissile isotope material, such as U-235, in uranium.
2.Centrifuges operate by spinning uranium in a gaseous form at high speeds to separate isotopes based on their mass.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>Centrifuges are used to increase the proportion of fissile isotope material, such as U-235, in uranium. Statement 2 is correct—>Centrifuges operate by spinning uranium in a gaseous form at high speeds to separate isotopes based on their mass. Additional Information - There are three natural isotopes of uranium — uranium-234 (U-234), uranium-235 (U-235) and uranium-238 (U-238).
- U-238 is the most common one, accounting for around 99 per cent of natural uranium found on earth. Most nuclear reactors use fuels containing U-235, however, natural uranium typically contains only 0.72 per cent of U-235 and, most reactors need a higher concentration of this isotope in their fuel. Therefore, the U-235 concentration is being artificially increased through a process called enrichment.
What is uranium enrichment?
- Uranium enrichment is the process, through which the isotopic proportion of U-235 is increased from 0.72 per cent to up to 94 percent.
- Uranium is considered low-enriched if its isotopic proportion of U-235 remains below 20 per cent. Most commercial reactors use low-enriched uranium (LEU) below five per cent as fuel, which is also often referred to as “reactor-grade uranium”. LEU does not deteriorate and can be safely stored for many years.
- If uranium is enriched beyond 20 per cent, it is considered highly enriched. Uranium with such high isotopic proportions of U-235 is mostly used in naval propulsion reactors (for example in submarines), nuclear weapons and some research reactors.
- Different methods can be used to increase the isotopic proportion of U-235.
- Typically, the yellow cake is converted into a gaseous form, called uranium hexafluoride. This gas is then pumped into fast spinning cylinders — centrifuges — where heavier isotopes, such as U-238, are pushed towards the walls of the cylinders, and the lighter U-235 stays in the centre of the cylinders. This enables to “filter out” and collect the gas with higher concentrations of U-235. The process can be repeated until the isotopic proportion of U-235 is sufficient. The acquired gas then goes through a process of re-conversion, which enables it to turn U-235 into the form of black power — uranium dioxide.
What is depleted uranium (DU)?
- Centrifuges produce uranium that contains a higher isotopic proportion of U-235. That also means that the remaining material contains less of this isotope. If such a byproduct of enrichment has an isotopic proportion of U-235 below 0.7 per cent, it is considered depleted.
- DU is less radioactive than natural uranium because it has less U-235 per unit of mass. All traces of decay products have been removed during the chemical purification of uranium prior to enrichment. DU can be disposed of as low-level radioactive waste or used in the fabrication of mixed oxide fuels (MOX) with separated plutonium stemming from the reprocessing of spent nuclear fuels.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>Centrifuges are used to increase the proportion of fissile isotope material, such as U-235, in uranium. Statement 2 is correct—>Centrifuges operate by spinning uranium in a gaseous form at high speeds to separate isotopes based on their mass. Additional Information - There are three natural isotopes of uranium — uranium-234 (U-234), uranium-235 (U-235) and uranium-238 (U-238).
- U-238 is the most common one, accounting for around 99 per cent of natural uranium found on earth. Most nuclear reactors use fuels containing U-235, however, natural uranium typically contains only 0.72 per cent of U-235 and, most reactors need a higher concentration of this isotope in their fuel. Therefore, the U-235 concentration is being artificially increased through a process called enrichment.
What is uranium enrichment?
- Uranium enrichment is the process, through which the isotopic proportion of U-235 is increased from 0.72 per cent to up to 94 percent.
- Uranium is considered low-enriched if its isotopic proportion of U-235 remains below 20 per cent. Most commercial reactors use low-enriched uranium (LEU) below five per cent as fuel, which is also often referred to as “reactor-grade uranium”. LEU does not deteriorate and can be safely stored for many years.
- If uranium is enriched beyond 20 per cent, it is considered highly enriched. Uranium with such high isotopic proportions of U-235 is mostly used in naval propulsion reactors (for example in submarines), nuclear weapons and some research reactors.
- Different methods can be used to increase the isotopic proportion of U-235.
- Typically, the yellow cake is converted into a gaseous form, called uranium hexafluoride. This gas is then pumped into fast spinning cylinders — centrifuges — where heavier isotopes, such as U-238, are pushed towards the walls of the cylinders, and the lighter U-235 stays in the centre of the cylinders. This enables to “filter out” and collect the gas with higher concentrations of U-235. The process can be repeated until the isotopic proportion of U-235 is sufficient. The acquired gas then goes through a process of re-conversion, which enables it to turn U-235 into the form of black power — uranium dioxide.
What is depleted uranium (DU)?
- Centrifuges produce uranium that contains a higher isotopic proportion of U-235. That also means that the remaining material contains less of this isotope. If such a byproduct of enrichment has an isotopic proportion of U-235 below 0.7 per cent, it is considered depleted.
- DU is less radioactive than natural uranium because it has less U-235 per unit of mass. All traces of decay products have been removed during the chemical purification of uranium prior to enrichment. DU can be disposed of as low-level radioactive waste or used in the fabrication of mixed oxide fuels (MOX) with separated plutonium stemming from the reprocessing of spent nuclear fuels.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
With reference to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), consider the following statements:
1.It was set up as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organization in 1957 within the United Nations family.
2.It is the world’s central intergovernmental forum for scientific and technical co-operation in the nuclear field.
3.Ratification of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) is a precondition for membership in the IAEA.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was set up as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organization in 1957 within the United Nations family. Statement 2 is correct—>It is the world’s central intergovernmental forum for scientific and technical co-operation in the nuclear field. Statement 3 is incorrect—>Signature and ratification of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) are not preconditions for membership in the IAEA. Additional Information -
- IAEA is an intergovernmental organisation that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons.
- It was established in 1957 as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organisation within the UN, and governed by its own founding treaty – the Statute of the IAEA.
- It reports to both the UNGA and the UNSC and is headquartered at the UN Office at Vienna, Austria
- In 2005, it was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for its work for a safe and peaceful world.
- India is one of the founding members.
- Functions:
-
- The Agency works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
- It applies nuclear safeguards – consisting of monitoring, inspection, information analysis, and other activities – to verify that nuclear activities remain peaceful and detect and deter their diversion, including to weapons-related purposes.
- In particular, the IAEA implements comprehensive safeguards agreements mandated by the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), which serve as a first line of defense against nuclear weapons proliferation.
- IAEA assists its Member States and promotes the exchange of scientific and technical information between them.
- IAEA enhances national, regional, and international capacities to respond to nuclear and radiological incidents, which is essential to minimizing their impact.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was set up as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organization in 1957 within the United Nations family. Statement 2 is correct—>It is the world’s central intergovernmental forum for scientific and technical co-operation in the nuclear field. Statement 3 is incorrect—>Signature and ratification of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) are not preconditions for membership in the IAEA. Additional Information -
- IAEA is an intergovernmental organisation that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons.
- It was established in 1957 as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organisation within the UN, and governed by its own founding treaty – the Statute of the IAEA.
- It reports to both the UNGA and the UNSC and is headquartered at the UN Office at Vienna, Austria
- In 2005, it was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for its work for a safe and peaceful world.
- India is one of the founding members.
- Functions:
-
- The Agency works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
- It applies nuclear safeguards – consisting of monitoring, inspection, information analysis, and other activities – to verify that nuclear activities remain peaceful and detect and deter their diversion, including to weapons-related purposes.
- In particular, the IAEA implements comprehensive safeguards agreements mandated by the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), which serve as a first line of defense against nuclear weapons proliferation.
- IAEA assists its Member States and promotes the exchange of scientific and technical information between them.
- IAEA enhances national, regional, and international capacities to respond to nuclear and radiological incidents, which is essential to minimizing their impact.
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
With reference to the recently notified telecom cyber security rules in India, consider the following statements:
1.Telecom entities are required to report security incidents to the Centre within 24 hours of becoming aware of the incident.
2.Telecom manufacturers must register the International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) number of equipment manufactured in India with the government before its first sale.
3.The government has the authority to seek user traffic data from telecommunication entities, including the content of messages, to ensure telecom cyber security.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—>The telecom cyber security rules mandate telecom entities to report security incidents within six hours to the Centre and provide additional details, including the number of affected users and remedial measures, within 24 hours of becoming aware of the incident. Statement 2 is correct—>Manufacturers of telecom equipment with IMEI numbers are required to register the IMEI numbers with the government before the first sale of such equipment, as specified by the rules. Statement 3 is incorrect—>The government has the authority to seek user traffic data from telecommunication entities, excluding the content of messages, to ensure telecom cyber security. Additional Information - The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has notified the Telecommunications (Telecom Cyber Security) Rules, 2024.
- This is the first set of rules to be issued under the newly issued Telecommunications Act, 2023.
Key Provisions
- Aim: To safeguard India’s communication networks and services, through measures including specified timelines for telcos to report security incidents and make disclosures.
- A telecommunication entity will include any person providing telecom services, or establishing, operating, maintaining, or expanding telecom network, including an authorised entity holding an authorisation.
- Access of Data to Union Government: The rules also empower the central government/ its authorised agency to seek traffic data and any other data (other than the content of messages) from a telecom entity for the purpose of ensuring cyber security.
- Reporting of the Cybersecurity Incidents: It has mandated telecom companies to report cybersecurity incidents to the government within six hours of becoming aware and additional details within 24 hours.
- Chief Telecommunications Security Officer: Telecom companies have been asked to appoint a chief telecommunications security officer, who is a citizen and resident of India.
- The officer will be responsible for coordinating with the Central government on behalf of the telecommunication entity for the implementation of the rules.
- Cybersecurity Policy: The telecom operators are also required to adopt a telecom cybersecurity policy, which includes security safeguards, risk management approaches, actions, training, best practices and technologies.
- Prior Registration for International Equipment: A manufacturer of equipment that has an International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) number is required to register the number of such equipment manufactured in India with the government before the sale of first such equipment.
Telecommunication Sector in India
- India is the world’s second-largest telecommunications market with a total telephone subscriber base of 1.20 billion.
- India ranks as the world’s second-largest market in terms of total internet users.
- India has an overall tele-density of 84.69%, of which, the tele-density of the rural market, which is largely untapped, stands at 58.48% while the tele-density of the urban market is 131.86%.
- The Telecom sector is the 4th largest sector in terms of FDI inflows, contributing 6% of total FDI inflow. (Source-Invest India)
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is incorrect—>The telecom cyber security rules mandate telecom entities to report security incidents within six hours to the Centre and provide additional details, including the number of affected users and remedial measures, within 24 hours of becoming aware of the incident. Statement 2 is correct—>Manufacturers of telecom equipment with IMEI numbers are required to register the IMEI numbers with the government before the first sale of such equipment, as specified by the rules. Statement 3 is incorrect—>The government has the authority to seek user traffic data from telecommunication entities, excluding the content of messages, to ensure telecom cyber security. Additional Information - The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has notified the Telecommunications (Telecom Cyber Security) Rules, 2024.
- This is the first set of rules to be issued under the newly issued Telecommunications Act, 2023.
Key Provisions
- Aim: To safeguard India’s communication networks and services, through measures including specified timelines for telcos to report security incidents and make disclosures.
- A telecommunication entity will include any person providing telecom services, or establishing, operating, maintaining, or expanding telecom network, including an authorised entity holding an authorisation.
- Access of Data to Union Government: The rules also empower the central government/ its authorised agency to seek traffic data and any other data (other than the content of messages) from a telecom entity for the purpose of ensuring cyber security.
- Reporting of the Cybersecurity Incidents: It has mandated telecom companies to report cybersecurity incidents to the government within six hours of becoming aware and additional details within 24 hours.
- Chief Telecommunications Security Officer: Telecom companies have been asked to appoint a chief telecommunications security officer, who is a citizen and resident of India.
- The officer will be responsible for coordinating with the Central government on behalf of the telecommunication entity for the implementation of the rules.
- Cybersecurity Policy: The telecom operators are also required to adopt a telecom cybersecurity policy, which includes security safeguards, risk management approaches, actions, training, best practices and technologies.
- Prior Registration for International Equipment: A manufacturer of equipment that has an International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) number is required to register the number of such equipment manufactured in India with the government before the sale of first such equipment.
Telecommunication Sector in India
- India is the world’s second-largest telecommunications market with a total telephone subscriber base of 1.20 billion.
- India ranks as the world’s second-largest market in terms of total internet users.
- India has an overall tele-density of 84.69%, of which, the tele-density of the rural market, which is largely untapped, stands at 58.48% while the tele-density of the urban market is 131.86%.
- The Telecom sector is the 4th largest sector in terms of FDI inflows, contributing 6% of total FDI inflow. (Source-Invest India)
-
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements in relation to St Francis Xavier:
1.Spanish Jesuit missionary St Francis Xavier is one of the founding members of The Society of Jesus.
2.He arrived in India during the time of Jehangir.
3.His mission was to restore Christianity among the Portuguese settlers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>Spanish Jesuit missionary St Francis Xavier is one of the founding members of The Society of Jesus. Statement 2 is incorrect—>Arrived in 1542 as a Spanish Jesuit missionary under the order of King John III of Portugal. Statement 3 is correct—>His mission was to restore Christianity among the Portuguese settlers. Additional Information - St. Francis Xavier, also called “Goencho Saib” (Lord of Goa).
- Arrived in 1542 as a Spanish Jesuit missionary under the order of King John III of Portugal.
- Mission was To restore Christianity among Portuguese settlers in Goa.
- He died in 1552 on Shangchuan Island, China, and his body was transported to Goa in 1554.
- Relics: The “incorruptible” body has been housed in the Basilica of Bom Jesus, Old Goa, since 1624.
- He was canonized as a saint in 1622.He is revered globally, especially by Catholics.
- He is considered as the patron saint of Goa and known for his miraculous relics.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>Spanish Jesuit missionary St Francis Xavier is one of the founding members of The Society of Jesus. Statement 2 is incorrect—>Arrived in 1542 as a Spanish Jesuit missionary under the order of King John III of Portugal. Statement 3 is correct—>His mission was to restore Christianity among the Portuguese settlers. Additional Information - St. Francis Xavier, also called “Goencho Saib” (Lord of Goa).
- Arrived in 1542 as a Spanish Jesuit missionary under the order of King John III of Portugal.
- Mission was To restore Christianity among Portuguese settlers in Goa.
- He died in 1552 on Shangchuan Island, China, and his body was transported to Goa in 1554.
- Relics: The “incorruptible” body has been housed in the Basilica of Bom Jesus, Old Goa, since 1624.
- He was canonized as a saint in 1622.He is revered globally, especially by Catholics.
- He is considered as the patron saint of Goa and known for his miraculous relics.
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
With reference to the Instrument Landing System (ILS), consider the following statements:
1.It is a precision radio navigation system.
2.It only provides short-range guidance to aircraft to allow them to approach a runway at night or in bad weather.
3.The ILS does not provide the vertical descent profile for the aircraft.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>Instrument landing system (ILS) is a ground-based radio navigation system that provides horizontal and vertical guidance to an aircraft approaching a runway. Statement 2 is incorrect—>It provides short-range guidance to aircraft to allow them to approach a runway at night or in bad weather. Statement 3 is correct—>The ILS provides the correct vertical descent profile for the aircraft. In other words, it tells the pilot whether the aircraft is too high or too low at any given distance from the runway. This is done with the help of a glidescope (GS). Additional Information - The ILS is a specific ground-based radio navigation system that provides pilots accurate information about their aircraft’s glide path and alignment with the runway.
How the ILS works
- The ILS provides the pilot with two key pieces of information that she needs while landing an aircraft.
- First, it provides azimuth guidance. Azimuth refers to the horizontal angle between a reference direction (in this case the runway) and a line to a point of interest (the aircraft). This information is provided with the help of the ILS localiser (LOC), whose antennae are usually located on the far end of the runway.
- These radio antennae transmit two narrow intersecting beams, one from slightly to the right of the runway’s centreline and the other to the left. Where they intersect provides the centreline of the runway. This information comes to the pilot flying the aircraft in the form of the vehicle’s displacement from the runway centreline, which then allows her to course-correct horizontally
- Second, the ILS provides the correct vertical descent profile for the aircraft. In other words, it tells the pilot whether the aircraft is too high or too low at any given distance from the runway. This is done with the help of a glidescope (GS).
Categories of the ILS
- ILS approaches are categorised based on two parameters: decision height (DH) and runway visual range (RVR).
- DH refers to the lowest altitude during descent till which pilots can rely solely on the ILS. At this altitude if the RVR — the distance over which a pilot can see the runway’s lights or markings — is below a certain threshold, then the landing has to be aborted.
Categories of ILS approaches Category DH RVR CAT I Not lower than 60 m Not less than 550 m CAT II Lower than 60 m but not lower than 30 m Not less than 350 m CAT III A Lower than 30 m, or no decision height Not less than 200 m CAT III B Lower than 15 m, or no decision height Not less than 50 m CAT III C No DH No RVR - Currently, six Indian airports — Delhi, Lucknow, Jaipur, Amritsar, Bengaluru and Kolkata — are equipped to handle CAT IIIB operations. India does not have a single airport capable of CAT IIIC operations.
Incorrect
Solution
Statement 1 is correct—>Instrument landing system (ILS) is a ground-based radio navigation system that provides horizontal and vertical guidance to an aircraft approaching a runway. Statement 2 is incorrect—>It provides short-range guidance to aircraft to allow them to approach a runway at night or in bad weather. Statement 3 is correct—>The ILS provides the correct vertical descent profile for the aircraft. In other words, it tells the pilot whether the aircraft is too high or too low at any given distance from the runway. This is done with the help of a glidescope (GS). Additional Information - The ILS is a specific ground-based radio navigation system that provides pilots accurate information about their aircraft’s glide path and alignment with the runway.
How the ILS works
- The ILS provides the pilot with two key pieces of information that she needs while landing an aircraft.
- First, it provides azimuth guidance. Azimuth refers to the horizontal angle between a reference direction (in this case the runway) and a line to a point of interest (the aircraft). This information is provided with the help of the ILS localiser (LOC), whose antennae are usually located on the far end of the runway.
- These radio antennae transmit two narrow intersecting beams, one from slightly to the right of the runway’s centreline and the other to the left. Where they intersect provides the centreline of the runway. This information comes to the pilot flying the aircraft in the form of the vehicle’s displacement from the runway centreline, which then allows her to course-correct horizontally
- Second, the ILS provides the correct vertical descent profile for the aircraft. In other words, it tells the pilot whether the aircraft is too high or too low at any given distance from the runway. This is done with the help of a glidescope (GS).
Categories of the ILS
- ILS approaches are categorised based on two parameters: decision height (DH) and runway visual range (RVR).
- DH refers to the lowest altitude during descent till which pilots can rely solely on the ILS. At this altitude if the RVR — the distance over which a pilot can see the runway’s lights or markings — is below a certain threshold, then the landing has to be aborted.
Categories of ILS approaches Category DH RVR CAT I Not lower than 60 m Not less than 550 m CAT II Lower than 60 m but not lower than 30 m Not less than 350 m CAT III A Lower than 30 m, or no decision height Not less than 200 m CAT III B Lower than 15 m, or no decision height Not less than 50 m CAT III C No DH No RVR - Currently, six Indian airports — Delhi, Lucknow, Jaipur, Amritsar, Bengaluru and Kolkata — are equipped to handle CAT IIIB operations. India does not have a single airport capable of CAT IIIC operations.